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HIMANSHU JAIN (376)

Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 62  [95 rates]

HIMANSHU JAIN's Avatar

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i think the base is x here.
so,here is the ans
 
qun can be written as 
[logelnx]/lnx
now derivative
[(1/lnx)(1/x) - (1/x)(loglnx)]/(lnx)2
putting x=e
lnx=1  log1=0
:. we get ans 1/e

Himanshu Jain P.E.C. http://jainhim.blogspot.com/
  this reply:   17 points  (with Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 4   votes   )     [?]
 
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